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Main  ::  Translations - all  ::  Solebas = were accustomed? (Carmen 1)

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AuthorMessage
Guest
Posted on Tue Sep 09, 2008 03:43:47  
I'm a little bothered with the translation of "Solebas" in Carmen 1.
Solebas in this is translated as "were accustomed". Is this correct?

--
Rob
Chris Weimer
Posted at Tue Sep 09, 2008 21:58:17  Quote
It's certainly what it means: soleo "to be accustomed", and the bas ending is the 2nd person singular imperfect indicative.
Suhardian
Posted at Wed Sep 10, 2008 21:30:02  Quote
Hi, I think it means "you used to (do something)": -ba indicates it is a past (approximately a past continous), -s is for the second person. In Italian we have "soleva", which directly derives from "solebas".

Suhardian
Try to read a carmen by Catullus in a summer evening...
Guest
Posted at Tue Feb 24, 2009 01:22:55  Quote
The -bas means second person, singular, imperfect, active, and indicative
this is translated in english as was(were) _______ing or used to ______
the imperfect expresses that it was done in the past but for some extent of time
Guest
Posted at Fri Feb 27, 2009 06:27:22  Quote
But isn't soleo a deponent verb?
If that is the case, why is its form active rather than passive?
Suhardian
Posted at Fri Feb 27, 2009 15:30:55  Quote
Actually I studied Latin some years ago. Anyhow my dictionnary says soleo is a semi-deponent verb: this should explain the absence of the usual -r ending of deponent verbs (i.e. soleo rather than soleor).
Try to read a carmen by Catullus in a summer evening...
Cambrinus
Posted at Sun Jan 10, 2010 17:10:49  Quote
Quote:
  But isn't soleo a deponent verb?
If that is the case, why is its form active rather than passive?


soleo, solere, solitus sum is a semi-deponent verb of the 2nd conjugation; it means 'to be in the habit of'.
 


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